Understood, and I withdraw the assumption I opened with.
How the published trials escalated, tabulated side by side
Holding a dose indefinitely: the trials did not study indefinite holding at a non-maximum dose. The trials escalated to a target and then held that. What happens if you stay at an intermediate dose for years is not formally studied and extrapolation is the best available reasoning.
Stepping down deliberately: the withdrawal trials show that stopping is followed by regain. The step-down literature is thinner. The conservative assumption is that stepping down is followed by some regain, with the magnitude unknown.
Take the reasoning and check the arithmetic; I do not always get it right.
Post #6 answers the question as asked. The question underneath it is different.
When a dose reduction is the correct response to a side effect: if a side effect is dose-dependent (nausea, constipation, injection discomfort), reducing the dose is a reasonable response. If the side effect is not dose-dependent (e.g., hypoglycemia with insulin), dose reduction does not address the issue.
I looked this up rather than remembered it, which is the right order.
I had read the opposite somewhere and cannot now find where, which tells me something.
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