Semaglutide and gastric emptying — the mechanism behind most of the side-effect profile — what changed since — setting out what I have, and where I think it stops being reliable.
What changes if the standard account of Semaglutide and gastric emptying is wrong? I ask because I have been treating it as settled and I noticed this week that I could not say why.
Working through the consequences rather than the evidence, since others here are better placed on the evidence.