Amylin analogue mechanism: satiety signalling separate from GLP-1 — does this still hold? — that is the question, and I have not found it answered plainly anywhere I have looked.
Trying to work out what would count as evidence on Amylin analogue mechanism, before collecting any. This is the part I usually skip and it is the part that makes the rest useful.
If two explanations predict the same observation, observing it does not help. So: what observation would separate them?