What is genuinely unknown about long-term amylin agonism — that is the question, and I have not found it answered plainly anywhere I have looked.
A comparison question rather than a question about one compound.
Two things in the same family get discussed as though the evidence behind them were equivalent, and I do not think it is. One has a trial programme; the other has a mechanism and a following.
What is the fair way to describe the difference without being dismissive about the second?